1. In Common Law jurisdictions, there's a longstanding tradition whereby private citizens can and even are expected to make an arrest of those committing an offence when there's no recourse to other means of resolving the situation.
In the UK, still a common law jurisdiction, this is even codified in Article 24A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984. Quote:
(1) A person other than a constable may arrest without a warrant—
(a) anyone who is in the act of committing an indictable offence;
(b) anyone whom he has reasonable grounds for suspecting to be committing an indictable offence.
(2) Where an indictable offence has been committed, a person other than a constable may arrest without a warrant—
(a) anyone who is guilty of the offence;
(b) anyone whom he has reasonable grounds for suspecting to be guilty of it. 
The article in its entirety is available on the legislation.gov.uk website at https://www.legislation.gov.uk..../ukpga/1984/60/secti
2. Article 24A of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act clearly uses the pronoun "anyone" when referring to the perpetrator caught in the criminal act. Which means that the legislation applies, without any special provisions, to members of the police force as well.
With the evidence mounting daily of members of the police force initating violence against peaceful citizens, how soon are we to witness citizen's arrests of constable, policemen, etc. by members of the public in the UK and other Common Law jurisdictions?
1. UK Coronavirus Act 2020, Section 1:
(1)In this Act—
“coronavirus” means severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2);
“coronavirus disease” means COVID-19 (the official designation of the disease which can be caused by coronavirus). 
2.. Freedom of Information Requests FOI-1244462 and FOI-1244664 asked the Department of Health and Social Care to provide "a copy of all records ... describing the isolation of a SARS-Cov-2 / COV-2 virus". In its response the DHSC provided no copies of or references to such documents and explicitly stated "DHSC does not hold such information". 
What exactly is the legal force of a statute enacted by the legislative branch of a government, whose provisions are based solely on an alleged threat from a certain natural phenomenon, while a representative of the executive branch of the same government officially admits that the government in question has no evidence of the existence in nature of such phenomenon?
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